

What are you actually referring to though? Was I correct that you are implying that it is a partial agonist?
“Hits the receptor sideways” may be common pseudoscientific jargon, but it means nothing within the context of neuroscience or neuropharmacology.
So, to clarify, what exactly do you mean by it?









Something may have gotten lost in the mix. You are taking a very defensive stance, when I asked a neutral question.
I looked through your responses, and at no point did you clarify what you actually meant by the phrase “hits the receptor sideways”.
I’m pretty sure you are referring to the fact that it is a partial agonist, and all I requested was that you clarify if that was the case.
I apologize if that somehow put you on your heels.
That said, there is no need for name calling or projecting ill intent. Thank you very much