• Teodomo@lemmy.world
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    3 months ago

    I’m not an American so I’m not sure I understand. Wikipedia says voter turnout in 2016 was 59.2% of the voting-eligible population. Even if we count is a percentage of the voting-age population (i.e. including people with felonies or without citizenship or barred from voting for other reasons) it’s still 54.8% voter turnout.

    But that bar at the top of the graph makes it look like only around 15% voted.

    Can someone explain?

    • WIZARD POPE💫@lemmy.world
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      3 months ago

      Does the top graph not just show that all the gray states had people that did not vote be the largest percentage.

      So if for example 30% voted for Biden and 31% for Trump, you still have 39% that did not vote thus making the non voter ‘candidate’ win.

      In this case the voter turnout is 61% yet the non voters represent the biggest share.

    • AngryCommieKender@lemmy.world
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      3 months ago

      It’s cause by FPTP. If the largest share of voters in a given state were people that didn’t vote, all the electoral college votes should go to “did not vote.” That doesn’t happen IRL because they just ignore low voter turnout.

      • takeheart@lemmy.world
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        3 months ago

        It’s true but for the broader picture one should add that many people don’t bother to vote if their state is predicted to be a landslide victory for either candidate.